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1 magnet 1 coil | 15 comments (15 topical)

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#3)
by finnsawyer on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 09:11:33 AM MST

Everything makes a difference. If one magnet has N toward the coil and the other has S toward the coil, you would see two more or less identical mirror image waveforms superimposed for Troy's sweep setting. For a slower sweep setting you would resolve the two waveforms individually with one going positive and the other negative initially. The two waveforms would be separated by a dead (flat line) zone. Try it and see if I'm right.
GeoM

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#4)
by wind pirate on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 09:45:36 AM MST

So if I'm reading you right, to keep a constant sine wave used for ac (adn convert to dc), you wouldn't alternate the magnets N-S-N-S?

Now I'm confused...

Wind Pirate

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#6)
by troy on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 11:11:02 AM MST

To make a constant sine wave in any normal alternator like we see on this board, you ALWAYS alternate the magnets on the rotor N-S-N-S-N-S unless you're doubling magnets side by side or something else funny.

Best regards,

troy

PS, sorry about the unauthorized departure of red blood cells.
tr

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#8)
by JW on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 01:03:28 PM MST

Correct Troy,

The 9/24 magnet coil arrangement seen in the "dual rotor axial machines" Has a consisent difference wheither being obsevered thru the 1st plane(n-s) (horizontil) and the second plane(s-n)(vertical). However one is always behind the other.... There is always a differentation between the two magnetic circuits.

"forget about it" with vinnys acent.

JW

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#10)
by JW on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 01:38:36 PM MST

Whoop's,

The vertical magnetic circuit is traveling in parallel(simultaniously), and the horizontal circuit is following[always] in refernce to said vector. Hmmm, so,,,, it is possible for two magnetic circuits to interact with one coil simultaniously.. In X vector "ie" only one direction such as a circulicler direction, 45*????

JW

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#11)
by JW on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 02:12:44 PM MST

Yes,

The two opposing "magnet rotors" of a 'dual rotor machine' have opposite potarity, between the opposing magnetic fields[one each] facing each other, in reference too the magnet(s) "ideally" 'indexed'... between the 'even' number of magnets on each plate, with an n-s arrangement(such as 12)related between the two rotor plates. Last i checked there is only one stator with this arrangement, and a 3-4 ratio is compatable...

Please forgive me i just could not resist, this is good stuff.

JW

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#12)
by troy on Tue Oct 05, 2004 at 03:28:54 PM MST

And a resounding YES! On a dual rotor machine, the other fact we can say with absolute authority is that when speaking about one pair of magnets that exactly face each other, one on rotor A and one on rotor B, one will have a N pole showing and the other will have a S pole showing, such that the two magnets (and the two rotors for that matter) attract each other.

And trust me, when you assemble these highly powerful neodymium magnetic arrays on the two opposing rotors, you want to mind your p's and q's or you'll pinch your finger right off into the netherworld.

Have a lovely day and always play safe!

troy

[ Parent ]

Re: 1 magnet 1 coil (3.00 / 0) (#14)
by finnsawyer on Wed Oct 06, 2004 at 10:19:17 AM MST

Troy should have shown two of the waveforms on his scope. You would have seen a dead zone between waveforms. With the magnets NNNN.. you need a spacing between them so that both sides of the coil aren't over a magnet at the same time. If they are the voltages induced in them will cancel. If the spacing is right you can get a sine wave out. In order to make this work, however, you need another row of magnets on the other side of the coils arranged SSSS.. It's just another way of doing it.
GeoM
[ Parent ]

1 magnet 1 coil | 15 comments (15 topical)

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