If we gear up the input to an alternator (by *2 for example), how does this change the design requirements of the alternator? (Assuming we want to charge the same battery bank)
We've doubled the RPM and halved the torque, so the power available to the alt is the same. (Assuming perfect gears)
The RPM has doubled, so the speed of the magnets past the coils has doubled. This will double the voltage generated, so we can halve the number of turns/coil to get back to the same voltage.
But if we halve the number of turns/coil, the coils will be half as thick. So we can either close the airgap (not sure of the effect of this?) or double the thickness of the wire we're using (or just wind two-in-hand).
That doubles the cross-sectional area of the wire. Combining that with the halving of the number of turns, the resistance of each coil will now be 1/4 of what it was.
There are 3 loading cases I'm interested in here.
1) Load resistance = infinity
No current flows, so we're just measuring the open-circuit voltage. Easy, it should be double what the original alt made.
2) Load resistance = 0
Short circuit, so there's no voltage difference. We measure the short-ciruit current. No power will be produced in the external load: all the power will dump as heat inside the coils. Given that the resistance is 1/4 what it was, and Power=R*I^2, I'd expect the current to be double what it was in the original alt, meaning the same power (ie all of it) is being dumped in the coils. Is that right?
3) Load resistance = same as coils
Perfectly matching the load to the alt, to get the maximum power from the load. This means the load should be 1/4 of the perfect load for the original alt. Since the voltage of the battery bank is the same, and its resistance is 1/4 what it was, the current through it should be 4 times what it was. Which can't be right, because that would mean the load is getting 4 times more power than the original alt! And Since the power being supplied to the new alt is the same, that can't happen!
Clearly I've misunderstood something. How can good ol' V=I*R hold across the load, when V is unchanged, and R is 1/4 what it was?
Can someone with better understanding than mine share please?
Thanks!